Affirmative Action Address Past Oppression?

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I wonder if affirmative action (or its replacement) is there to compensate for past oppression or for contemporary success disparity due to contemporary competence disparity? We can test this theory. If A ->B then B usually suggest A. That’s how scientific reasoning works.

And yes correlation does strongly suggest causation. Our whole scientific knowledge is built upon this imperfect reasoning.

Which one correlates more with the benefits of affirmative action?

Show me an ethnic group that is more successful financially or academically that are benefited by affirmative action?

Show me any group that is already over-represented in top ivy league school that got help by affirmative action so that they are even more over-represented. If there are none, then I would give a score to the theory of disparity of contemporary success.

Affirmative action is simply socialism on racial groups. Now. What about if the ancestors are “oppressed” similarly. Will affirmative action benefit one or the other?

If affirmative actions addressed past oppressions we would expect those whose ancestors are oppressed similarly to be treated the same way under affirmative action. Simple right? Let’s see how affirmative action treats white men vs white women or men of any race vs women of similar race.

Those 2 groups of people have the exact same ancestors right. Their sex is determined randomly by the extra X chromosome somewhere during the last fuck that knock their mom up.

Would affirmative action treat them the same way? No.

Hence, I concluded that affirmative action tries to compensate for contemporary success disparity due to contemporary competence disparity.

Is it justified? That’s another story for another post.

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